Did Jesus Redeem Mankind? — Page 133
? 126 (i. e. , there was no gain in twisting words and in making mischief. The question is-whether the works I do manifest the glory and uniqueness of God the Supreme, or defeat that end; whether they are the deeds of those who have faith in His incomparable oneness, or of heretics. If my deeds approximate those of the believers in one God, then the term son used by God the Supreme in His word in respect of me, must be interpreted in some other sense, and to reach a conclusion in this behalf it would be necessary to examine my works). "But if I do though ye believe not me, believe the works; that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me and I in him. " (John 10:25-39) The above reference clearly establishes that the Messiah himself gave another meaning to the term 'Son of God' and said that his claim to be one did not mean that he had literally acquired divinity in his person or that he had become God in fact, but that, on the contrary, as it is said in the Bible about others that they were gods but were in fact, not gods. And it was merely metaphorical way of saying; similarly, when he claimed to be the Son of God, it was in an metaphorical sense and not in the sense that he had literally become Divine. The above quotation carries a reference to the Judaic Law which we find in the Psalms, "God standeth in the