Did Jesus Redeem Mankind? — Page 102
? 95 95 went so far as to declare: "Verily I say unto you; Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist. " (Matthew 11: 11-12) He thus showed that John was far superior to him, for, Messiah was also born of a woman as was John. The above references show that both Zacharias (peace be on him) and his wife, were, according to the Bible, and flawless and observed the ordinances of God the Supreme. pure Similarly, John was filled with the Holy Spirit while yet in his mother's womb and was perfect, without a blemish. Now when John, Zacharias and his wife could be free from sin, by the same rule, why the other people could not be similarly, free from sin? When practically there have been before the Messiah and before his vicarious atonement took place, such people as were virtuous, pious and flawless and observant of the ordinances, the inference is clear that the righteous existed in the world even without atonement. And when righteousness could be sustained in the world without atonement once, it could continue to abide in a future period of time as well, and there remained therefore, no necessity for any redemption.