Three Questions by a Christian and their Answers — Page 23
23 Let it be known that the verse which the critic has quoted in support of his objection is concerned only with signs of warning, as this verse makes clear: 25 We would be quite mistaken if we were to consider all the signs of God to be the signs of wrath, and were to under- stand from this verse that He sends every sign for the sole purpose of warning, and for no other reason. As I have al- ready mentioned, signs are sent for two purposes: as warnings and as glad-tidings. The Holy Quran, and also the Bible, speak frequently of these two kinds of signs. There- fore, the only logical interpretation of the verse in question is that the signs mentioned in it are only signs of wrath. Otherwise, we will have to admit that all Divine signs are signs of wrath. But this is not at all true, for it can neither be substantiated by the Holy Book, by human reason, nor by the conscience of a pure heart. It is now clear that, of the two kinds of signs, only the signs of wrath are mentioned in this verse. The question that now remains to be answered relates to the true connotation of the verse 26 Does it mean that God demonstrated no sign of warning at the hand of the Holy Prophet sa ; Or that such signs were not demonstrated by him as had already been shown to earlier people; Or that 25 And We send not Signs but to warn. —Ban i Isr a ’ i l 17:60 [Publishers] 26 Ban i Isr a ’ i l, 17:60 [Publishers]