Did Jesus Redeem Mankind?

by Hazrat Mirza Bashir-ud-Din Mahmud Ahmad

Page 62 of 184

Did Jesus Redeem Mankind? — Page 62

62 following the crucifixion of Christ, apostles have been found to be in considerable confusion about it and have, therefore, made different statements on different occasions. As for instance the above quotation clearly shows that there, had been a lot of men after Adam who did not indulge in sin which, in other words, means that, notwithstanding the fact that Adam committed sin, sin was not transmitted to his generations through heredity. But in the same chapter (Romans, Ch. 5: 12) of the same book, it is said: "Wherefore as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin: and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned. '. That is to say that Adam's sin was punished with death and because of Adam, death became the lot of all men, for, they all had sinned. "For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law" (Romans,. Ch. 5:13). . This means that Paul was blowing hot and cold in the same breath when in the same chapter he wrote that since all had sinned, death became the lot of mankind (the Christians believe that death is the harvest of sin). But in the following verse (14) of the chapter under reference, he says; "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression who is the figure of him that was to come. ". LAW AND SIN. Here another difficulty was encountered, namely that according to Christian belief, rule of the law started with Moses and did not exist before him. And when there was no law in force what was the place of sin? The question has been