Did Jesus Redeem Mankind?

by Hazrat Mirza Bashir-ud-Din Mahmud Ahmad

Page 33 of 184

Did Jesus Redeem Mankind? — Page 33

law and with all that partakes of it, and therefore thou shouldst have recourse to it. . . , when thou wilt put this teaching to them, those, who have fear of God in their hearts, will certainly benefit by it. . This again indicates that virtue, and not sin, is hereditary, for, heart is the source of the fear of God. And one, who has put himself to hardship, will try to by-pass it. و يتجنبها الاشقى الذي يصلى النار الكبرى. This part of the verse shows that sin is due to man's own doing, nature of every man being otherwise pure in itself. 5. Further, God says: (90:9:11) ألم نجعل له عينين - ولسانا وشفتين - و هديناه النجدين i. e. , does not man reflect that We gave him eyes. Man may assert that he is sinful. He may claim that his sinfulness is hereditary. Did We not give him eyes? Did We not give him a tongue? Did We not give him a pair of lips?. If man could not profit thereby and his salvation was contingent upon vicarious atonement, then why We gave him eyes and why does he then see! And if his heart was impure and he could not cleanse it of impurity through exchange of views with a knowledgeable person, then wherefore did We give him a tongue, wherefore did We make for him a pair of lips? Besides, God the Almighty has placed a conscience in every man which weighs good and evil. If he could not weigh good or evil wherefore the need for a conscience? The theory of vicarious atonement is like throwing a stone in a pit and then believing that the act would assuage one's hunger. An idea is tenable only when it is