Did Jesus Redeem Mankind?

by Hazrat Mirza Bashir-ud-Din Mahmud Ahmad

Page 86 of 260

Did Jesus Redeem Mankind? — Page 86

? transgression who is the figure of him that was to come. " (Romans 5:14) 79 Here "that was to come” stands for Messiah (peace be on him) and his 'like' means Adam. It is averred that death laid its hand on all from Adam to Moses who had not sinned like Adam (the like of Messiah). In other words, Paul admits that there had been many from Adam to Moses who had not sinned. This clearly establishes that man can shun sin. The Bible is very clear on the point that there had been born many men after Adam who did not sin. It is strange, however, that since this theory was made in utter consternation, at the spur of the moment, to meet criticism following the crucifixion of Christ, apostles have been found to be in considerable confusion about it and have, therefore, made different statements on different occasions. As for instance the above quotation clearly shows that there, had been a lot of men after Adam who did not indulge in sin which, in other words, means that, notwithstanding the fact that Adam committed sin, sin was not transmitted to his generations through heredity. But in the same chapter (Romans 5:12) of the same book, it is said: "Wherefore as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin: and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned. "