Did Jesus Redeem Mankind?

by Hazrat Mirza Bashir-ud-Din Mahmud Ahmad

Page 66 of 184

Did Jesus Redeem Mankind? — Page 66

66 conscience felt what was virtue and what was a wrongful act. . The Promised Messiah (peace and the blessings be on him)says in effect the same thing when he observes that such poeple will be tested by their natures. Allah the Excellent will not require of them why they did not offer the prayers prescribed by the Holy Prophet Muhammad (peace and the blessings of. Allah be on him). He will require of them whether they had done the duty of worship in accordance with their nature's urge of dutiful worship of a deity. The same applies to acts like perjury, theft and brigandage. One may indulge in misappropriating other people's property taking it as a normal thing but when another person lifts his property, he calls him a crook. This goes to show that, in his heart of hearts, he knows that misappropriation is an act of dishonesty. It is true that such a one cannot be called a sinner in terms of the Shariat law, but, he will be guilty in terms of natural impulses and will meet his deserts. But the point is, if this is a correct stand, where does then the need for atonement arise?. LAW AND SALVATION. If the New Testament had asserted that human nature was a curse in itself, this would be a tenable theory. But it says, the law is curse (Galatians, Ch. 3:13). In other words, the New Testament does not find fault with the judgment of human nature condeming a particular act as sinful; but it says that law is a curse, in that it bears such commands as people do not find practicable, and it claims that Jesus, therefore, scrapped it. But the question here arises that the law was in abeyance even before the advent of Moses (peace and the blessings of Allah be on him) and man needed no atonement for salvation; he could either attain salvation by