Did Jesus Redeem Mankind? — Page 96
96 as a metaphor, why then in his case the title of son had become such a heinous offence as to make him a heretic in their eyes. . Here the Messiah (peace be on him) clearly admits that the word son used in the Bible about him does not carry a literal sense, for, the expression 'God' had been used in respect of many other people in the same book and they had not become Gods in the eyes of Jews nor even heretics; and since in spite of this appellation, they did not accept them as. Gods nor did they declare them as heretics, why did they then ascribe to him a claim to be God on his using the same expression in his favour and called him heretic and fit for being stoned, he asked. "If I do not the works of my father, believe me not,' (i. e. , there was no gain in twisting words and in making mischief. The question is-whether the works I do manifest the glory and uniqueness of God the Supreme, or defeat that end; whether they are the deeds of those who have faith in. His incomparable One-ness, or of heretics. If my deeds approximate those of the believers in one God, then the term son used by God the Supreme in His word in respect of me, must be interpreted in some other sense, and to reach a conclusion in this behalf it would be necessary to examine my works). "But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works; that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me and I in him" (John, Ch. 10: 25-39). . The above reference clearly establishes that the Messiah himself gave another meaning to the term 'Son of God' and said that his claim to be one did not mean that he had literally acquired divinity in his person or that he had become God in fact but that, on the contrary, as it is said in the Bible